Here’s David Glasner:
I can envision a pure barter economy with incorrect price expectations in which individual plans are in a state of discoordination. Or consider a Fisherian debt-deflation economy in which debts are denominated in terms of gold and gold is appreciating. Debtors restrict consumption not because they are trying to accumulate more cash but because their debt burden is so great, any income they earn is being transferred to their creditors. In a monetary economy suffering from debt deflation, one would certainly want to use monetary policy to alleviate the debt burden, but using monetary policy to alleviate the debt burden is different from using monetary policy to eliminate an excess demand for money. Where is the excess demand for money?
Why is it different from alleviating an excess demand for money?
As far as I know the demand for money is usually defined as either M/P or the Cambridge K. In either case, a debt crisis might raise the demand for money, and cause a recession if the supply of money is fixed. Or the Fed could adjust the supply of money to offset the change in the demand for money, and this would prevent any change in AD, P, and NGDP.
Perhaps David sees the debt crisis working through supply-side channels—causing a recession despite no change in NGDP. That’s possible, but it’s not at all clear to me that this is what David has in mind.